Once a sinner is saved he is a new creature, 2 Cor. 5:17. The domineering power and authority of sin has been broken and triumphed over, Romans 6. The Christian now practices righteousness as opposed to unrighteousness, 1 John 3. He walks down the narrow and constrained path that leads to life as opposed to the broad path leading to destruction, Matthew 7. However, the Christian walk and life is by no means easy! It will be full of trials and afflictions, all of which are necessary Acts 14:22; 2 Tim. 3:12, 1 Pe. 1:6. He will be hated by all, Matt. 10:22; 24:9; among many other things. Yet one of the most difficult aspects of the Christian pilgrimage on earth is being the prime target and prey of the Enemy who is the Devil, Accuser, and Slanderer, Rev. 12:10. His intent is only to steal, kill, destroy, and devour, Jn. 10:10; 1 Pe. 5:8. He is ruthless and vicious.
The Devil is also a tempter. We know that God does not tempt anyone, Ja. 1:13. This is exclusively the work of the Devil, and he is good at it. He tempted our Lord as a man, Mt. 4, yet every time He shined through victorious and without sin. One of the great comforts which we have as Christians is that our Lord though was tempted and had many trials, He never succumbed nor gave in, but pressed through every instance with complete patience and perfection. Because of His triumph in the face of adversary and temptation, He is able to help those (Christians) who are being tempted.
Hebrews 2:18 is usually referenced when speaking of these things, and rightfully so. And yet, two of the best English translations have translated and interpreted the first Greek clause in two very different ways. They read as follows:
ESV For because he himself has suffered when tempted…
NAS For since he himself was tempted in that which he suffered…
Can you see the difference in meaning and implication? Below is the clause in Greek, as well as the two possible translations. Though they may be grammatically possible, only one of them can be correct, and as usual, this is a matter of exegesis and context. So let’s throw all of our presuppositions, ideas, and thoughts out the window and look at the text as it is.
The Devil is also a tempter. We know that God does not tempt anyone, Ja. 1:13. This is exclusively the work of the Devil, and he is good at it. He tempted our Lord as a man, Mt. 4, yet every time He shined through victorious and without sin. One of the great comforts which we have as Christians is that our Lord though was tempted and had many trials, He never succumbed nor gave in, but pressed through every instance with complete patience and perfection. Because of His triumph in the face of adversary and temptation, He is able to help those (Christians) who are being tempted.
Hebrews 2:18 is usually referenced when speaking of these things, and rightfully so. And yet, two of the best English translations have translated and interpreted the first Greek clause in two very different ways. They read as follows:
ESV For because he himself has suffered when tempted…
NAS For since he himself was tempted in that which he suffered…
Can you see the difference in meaning and implication? Below is the clause in Greek, as well as the two possible translations. Though they may be grammatically possible, only one of them can be correct, and as usual, this is a matter of exegesis and context. So let’s throw all of our presuppositions, ideas, and thoughts out the window and look at the text as it is.
The NA27/UBS4 reads: ἐν ᾧ γὰρ πέπονθεν αὐτὸς πειρασθείς…
1st Possible Translation For in that which he himself has suffered being tempted…
(roughly same as KJV)
ESV For because he himself has suffered when tempted…
Understanding:
This is the more literal of the two possible translations. It tells us that Christ suffered being tempted or when tempted, he was not tempted because of suffering or as a result of suffering. He suffered as a result of being tempted and passing through trials. The temptations which Christ experienced to sin, the hardships, afflictions, rejection, spurning, hunger, pain, caused Him grief and suffering. The ESV chose the wording “when tempted” to replace the awkward literal Greek participle πειρασθείς “being tempted”. More on that later.
2nd Possible Translation For he himself was tempted in that which he has suffered …
NAS For since he himself was tempted in that which he suffered…
Understanding:
Though this translation is possible, it rearranges to word order in several places to put emphasis where it may not be due in Greek. This tells us that Christ was tempted in what he suffered, or tempted because of or through suffering. The suffering/trials are what caused the temptation, not the temptation/trials causing the suffering. This is sometimes used to teach that because of suffering/trials, temptation comes. And when we are weak due to suffering/trials, we are easily tempted to sin and more prone to fall into it. An example should suffice: Your life is in shambles, you have lost your job, now your unbelieving wife wants to leave you, you are beaten down and worn out spiritually and emotionally. When temptation finds you like this, and it will, it will be much easier for you to give in to it.
The ESV rendering says that the temptations/trials caused suffering, while the NAS claims that the suffering/trials caused temptations. What both possible translations claim have truth in them. It is true that Christ suffered when He was tempted in numerous ways. It is also true that when we as Christians suffer and pass through trials, we can be weaker and more prone to sin. BUT, what is Hebrews 2:18 referring to? Is the NAS understanding true of Christ? In the Scriptures, when we see Him suffering and having trials, do we see Him as being weaker and more susceptible to temptation and sin? What we see in these instances of our Lord is in fact more prayer, more devotion, more strength, more dependence on the Father, not weakness to give into temptation. Though the second possible translation may be true of us, it does not seem to be fitting of Him.
So why would two great English translations take this clause so differently? This comes down to context and exegesis. We must look at immediate context here in this passage, but also the life of Christ.
Apart from the Greek, it should not go unmentioned, that the vast majority of conservative Greek scholars and Biblical theologians of the past and today prefer the rendering of the ESV/KJV over and against the NAS. The NAS is a great translation, I am not questioning its integrity nor the motives/integrity of its translators. In this verse though, I would suggest it to be dangerous for someone (say a preacher or exegete) to readily dismiss the ESV/KJV rendering in favor of the NAS, especially if/when the person doing so does not know Greek. This is one of those places where a real knowledge of the language is needed, and the computer program will only take you so far. Why is this? Because the participle πειρασθείς (being tempted) describes the manner in which the suffering took place. That is, that He suffered πειρασθείς (being tempted), not that He was tempted as a result of suffering, for this is not what the verse is saying or teaching.
When one reads this clause in the Greek things look rather different than from viewing it through the veil of translation or computer software. It appears to be communicating that Christ Himself “suffered being tempted”, that His suffering resulted from the temptations/trials that He underwent throughout His life. To say that Christ “was tempted in that which he suffered” NAS, is to bring something into this passage which seems neither necessary nor implied here in the context. The thrust of what the writer is communicating to the reader is that Christ “suffered and was tempted” (W. Tyndale), and as a result, “he is able to help those who are being tempted”. Christ is able to help the Christian when they are tempted, because He suffered being tempted and triumphed every time. He was tempted, and can help us as a result of it.
What a glorious truth! There is always a way out of temptation. Our Lord was tempted, and He can help us in whichever trial we find ourselves!
A few quotes on this verse from men of old:
“The temptation resulted in suffering. He suffered because of temptation. The temptation to sin is what caused his suffering. Through temptation, or because of temptation, Christ suffered in the flesh”
“He suffered by his temptations”
“That the temptations to which our blessed Lord was subjected were real ones is evidenced from the inspired declaration that He "suffered" from them”
(That is, he suffered because of the temptations)
“The remembrance of his own sorrows and temptations makes him mindful of the trials of his people, and ready to help them.”
“Being tempted – The temptations or trials which Christ suffered here on earth must not be limited to those which came upon Him from Satan, though these are included. First, Christ suffered bodily hunger (Matt. 4:1,2), etc. Second, His holy nature suffered acutely from the very presence of the foul Fiend, so that He said, "Get thee hence" (Matt. 4:10). Third, the temptations from the Pharisees and others "grieved" Him (Mark 3:5) Fourth, from the words of His own disciples, which were an "offense" unto Him (Matt. 16:23). Fifth, His greatest sufferings were from His Father’s temptings or tryings of Him. (See John 12:27; Matthew 26:38, 39; 27:46). Note how in Luke 22:28, "My temptation," the Savior spoke of His whole life as one unbroken experience of trial! How real and deep His "sufferings" were, many of the Messianic Psalms reveal.”
**I would like to thank Dave Black, for his correspondence and for taking the time to read my questions and exegesis on this topic. He encouraged me to dig deeper and study it out, and affirmed to me, that as he (being the Greek scholar he is) sees this in the original, the above understanding appears to be the more correct and truthful. He admitted, as I did, that the NAS translation is a possibility, though he tends to side with the ESV's understanding.