Today we often hear the term exegetical preaching. But what exactly does this mean? What is exegesis? Exegesis could simply be referred to as: the process of drawing out of a passage or verse what is contained therein. The great enemy to exegesis is eisegesis, which is reading into a passage what is not there, by forcing one’s own thoughts into the passage and making it say something which it was never intended to say. You may have guessed it, that much of the preaching today is far from exegetical, but rather is eisegetical, men imposing their own thoughts, ideas, forced modern day applications, and agendas into the text, instead of letting the text do the speaking.
It is important to note however, that the forerunner to exegetical preaching is exegetical study. You can’t have the former without the latter. You can’t have exegetical preaching simply by picking up a commentary or two, or clicking a few buttons in the computer program. It’s not that easy. I don't want to discourage anyone from pursing the exegetical study of the Word of God. It really is not that difficult, but does require certain tools and discipline. If you have any questions, don't hesitate to leave a comment. These are some notes I took while reading Dave Black's book, "Using New Testament Greek in Ministry". I feel he does a great job of simplifying the task of exegesis. Exegetical Process I. Discovering the Text A. Historical Analysis Author, audience, date, occasion, purpose, cultural and sociological influences, other related background matters. B. Literary Analysis Canonical – place in Bible itself Remote – paragraphs, chapter, or even entire book Immediate – verses or paragraphs that immediately precede or follow the text II. Understanding the Text A. Textual Analysis Attempt to determine the original wording of a document – Textual Criticism B. Lexical Analysis Determine the meaning of the words in the text – Word study C. Syntactical Analysis Involves attention to clauses and other unites that are larger than individual words. Also includes matters of tense, voice, mood, person, number, and case of individual words. Helps to determine an author’s thought patterns. Syntax is concerned with the meaning of words in their combination with other words. D. Structural Analysis Concerned with the ways clauses and larger thought units are placed in relation with each other. Cannot be translated into another language, because translators must use the grammatical system of the target language. Diagramming a passage can be helpful in determining its structure. E. Rhetorical Analysis RA is an attempt to clarify our understanding of the biblical text through a study of its literary techniques.
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The Bible and specifically the NT is filled with warnings to professing Christians. We are reminded of Paul telling the Colossians "do not be taken captive...", and to the Corinthians "do not be deceived..." In a day where teaching and preaching is so often sought after by men both old and young though, there is a warning to which we should give heed and is found in James 3:1.
UBS/NA Μὴ πολλοὶ διδάσκαλοι γίνεσθε, ἀδελφοί μου, εἰδότες ὅτι μεῖζον κρίμα λημψόμεθα. Translation Do not (or let not) many (of you) become teachers, my brethren, knowing that stricter judgment we will receive. As a Christian reading the Scriptures, I have understood this verse and passage to be a warning, but have not taken it any further than just that. I had never considered the question of whether or not this negative imperative is a suggestion or command though. That is, not until reading it in my GNT. In English I usually read the ESV which states, "not many of you should become teachers...". In contemporary English this could be understood as a mere suggestion, at least that's how I understood it. The NAS says it this way, "Let not many of you become teachers..." which carries more of a command. Last night I was reading in 1 John 5 with my wife in the GNT, and as we came across the second half of verse 1, there was a word that struck us a bit strange. I thought, "I know my English Bible doesn't say this", and indeed it didn't come to find out.
The ESV says: "Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God, and everyone who loves the Father loves whoever has been born of him." The Greek reads: "Πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ Χριστός, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ γεγέννηται, καὶ πᾶς ὁ ἀγαπῶν τὸν γεννήσαντα ἀγαπᾷ τὸν γεγεννημένον ἐξ αὐτοῦ." So, everyone who loves the Father will love those who are born of Him. Right? While that is true, it is not exactly what this verse says: And everyone who loves τὸν γεννήσαντα loves the one who is born (begotten) of Him. Who or what is τὸν γεννήσαντα? This participle γεννήσαντα comes from the verb γεννάω (to beget, to give birth), and it just doesn't flow well into modern English translation here. It would read something like this: Everyone who loves he who begat (the begetter) loves the one who is born of Him. Does that sound strange? This is how Tyndale translated it, nearly 500 years ago, and it survived hundreds of years in the KJV as well. Even in Spanish this wording flows quite nicely (al que engendró), but in modern English...not so much. There is just no natural way to convey this for the 21st century American reader. So why "Father" in the modern translations? The "one who begets" a person is the Father, so I suppose this was substituted in order to take away some of the difficulty. It is true that if we love the Father we will love those who are born of Him. It is true that the Father is the one who begets sinners unto new life. But looking at this verse literally, do we love "he who begat"? If we do, then we will love those who are begotten of Him. That is a different way of referring to God, but I like it. To me it possesses more weight and clarity and I will not view this verse the same from now on. So as you may suspect, I prefer literal word-for-word renderings in translation. I find that they often shed the best light and are quite understandable. As you may have heard... "Understand Yoda perfectly well you can, even if natural English speak he does not..." Every good preacher or teacher wants to present the Scriptures in their original context and give the application for the modern listeners. We call the processes of discovering the original meaning, context, and application exegesis. Anytime exegesis takes place the exegete must go back to the original language to determine what is really being said, among other things. An Exegetical Fallacy (EF) is when the original language is misunderstood, misused, or misapplied to say or teach something that was not intended by the language.
The issue of Exegetical Fallacies stemming from a misuse and/or misunderstanding of Biblical Greek is deeply relevant and far too common in our day. These fallacies happen more often than most of us recognize. The scary thing is that so many people assume that they are excluded from them. When EF are being committed, they are usually done by a sincere, well meaning pastor or teacher, who genuinely is trying his best with the tools he has to communicate from Greek what he believes is being said. This person usually does not have any idea that they are teaching a fallacy. More so, it is thought that if someone has a Biblical Hermeneutic and sound "Reformed Theology", then they are protected for the most part from exegetical fallacies. This could not be farther from the truth. In fact, these fallacies may be as common in Reformed pulpits as they are elsewhere. Indeed, those often responsible for committing the fallacies which follow are those who do not have a working knowledge of Biblical Greek, but rather attempt find the meaning of the Greek through computer programs, lexicons or dictionaries, or some other means, but have not actually studied the language and learned it for themselves. In short, they are fully dependent on second-hand sources. The best and most thorough treatment of this topic is D.A. Caron’s wonderful book Exegetical Fallacies. I have used the same designations as Carson as well as citations and paraphrases throughout. This little book should be carefully read by everyone who preaches or teaches the Word of God. If you have read it, then there is probably not much new below. Nevertheless, I will attempt to mention a brief list of some of the most common EF today. I usually do not use transliterations of the Greek alphabet, but since the words referred to are commonly heard today and are already somewhat familiar to those without Greek, for the sake of clarity, I will use transliterations here so that there is no misunderstanding. 1. The Root Fallacy This fallacy is based on the assumption that a word always derives its meaning from the parts or components of which it is made. This says that a word’s meaning, regardless of its other parts, always can be determined by its root. (Exegetical Fallacies, p. 29) Examples: Once a sinner is saved he is a new creature, 2 Cor. 5:17. The domineering power and authority of sin has been broken and triumphed over, Romans 6. The Christian now practices righteousness as opposed to unrighteousness, 1 John 3. He walks down the narrow and constrained path that leads to life as opposed to the broad path leading to destruction, Matthew 7. However, the Christian walk and life is by no means easy! It will be full of trials and afflictions, all of which are necessary Acts 14:22; 2 Tim. 3:12, 1 Pe. 1:6. He will be hated by all, Matt. 10:22; 24:9; among many other things. Yet one of the most difficult aspects of the Christian pilgrimage on earth is being the prime target and prey of the Enemy who is the Devil, Accuser, and Slanderer, Rev. 12:10. His intent is only to steal, kill, destroy, and devour, Jn. 10:10; 1 Pe. 5:8. He is ruthless and vicious.
The Devil is also a tempter. We know that God does not tempt anyone, Ja. 1:13. This is exclusively the work of the Devil, and he is good at it. He tempted our Lord as a man, Mt. 4, yet every time He shined through victorious and without sin. One of the great comforts which we have as Christians is that our Lord though was tempted and had many trials, He never succumbed nor gave in, but pressed through every instance with complete patience and perfection. Because of His triumph in the face of adversary and temptation, He is able to help those (Christians) who are being tempted. Hebrews 2:18 is usually referenced when speaking of these things, and rightfully so. And yet, two of the best English translations have translated and interpreted the first Greek clause in two very different ways. They read as follows: ESV For because he himself has suffered when tempted… NAS For since he himself was tempted in that which he suffered… Can you see the difference in meaning and implication? Below is the clause in Greek, as well as the two possible translations. Though they may be grammatically possible, only one of them can be correct, and as usual, this is a matter of exegesis and context. So let’s throw all of our presuppositions, ideas, and thoughts out the window and look at the text as it is. I received the question below in a comment on a previous blog post, and felt that it could be profitable to address it here:
Ryan…I was wondering if you could assist me with trying to understand 1 Peter 1:3. The word ἀναγεννάω is translated different among all of the various versions. The ESV and NASB goes with "has caused." This translation seems to have significant theological relevance when dealing with primary and secondary causes of our faith. I would like to be able to defend against any Pelagianistic heresy using this verse and understand for myself the logical order of regeneration and faith. The use of the words "has caused" to me seems to be another slam dunk verse to support regeneration preceding faith and the Lord being the primary cause of our regeneration and faith and man only being a secondary cause of saving faith. Any help you can provide would be very appreciated. Thanks. Andre, this is a great question. In NTG, one word can often have several different meanings. Sometimes, though definitely not always, the meaning and translation of a word will be ultimately determined by the context of the passage, or by the translator's theology. Here however, the word ἀναγεννάω is set in meaning. Though there may be three possible translations of it, they all mean the same thing. It could be that the translational differences to which you refer are the result of the translator's translation philosophy: (Word for Word = ESV, NASB; Dynamic Equivalent = NIV, TNIV; Paraphrase = Message, NCV). It could also be the result of the translator's theology, and the place of importance and understanding that they do or do not have of the doctrine of regeneration. That being said, here is the verse: ὁ κατὰ τὸ πολὺ αὐτοῦ ἔλεος ἀναγεννήσας ἡμᾶς εἰς ἐλπίδα ζῶσαν δι’ ἀναστάσεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐκ νεκρῶν …who according to his great mercy begat (has begotten) us again into a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead. Sanctification is without a doubt one of the most essential doctrines taught in the Scriptures. All Christians would agree on that. We know that a person is sanctified positionally when they are justified, they are consecrated, or set apart for the Lord. But, narrowing it down a little more, how are we sanctified progressively throughout our Christian lives? Jesus says in John 17:17, “Sanctify them in the truth, your word is truth” (ESV). Paul says in 1 Thessalonians 4:3, “For this is the will of God, your sanctification, that you abstain from sexual immorality” (ESV). The writer of Hebrews says in 12:14, “Strive for peace with everyone, and for the holiness/sanctification without which no one will see the Lord.” (ESV) Sanctification is undeniably a necessity in the life of the believer. Without progressive sanctification and growth in holiness, there can be no assurance that justification has taken place. Okay, so we know that we are sanctified through the Word, and that our sanctification is God’s will. And, we know that sanctification is necessary if we are to enter into glory. But, there is one more verse to comment on regarding this, one which cannot fail to be mentioned. It does not use the word “sanctification”, but it certainly is talking about it. Let’s look at it:
2 Corinthians 3:18 ἡμεῖς δὲ πάντες ἀνακεκαλυμμένῳ προσώπῳ τὴν δόξαν κυρίου κατοπτριζόμενοι τὴν αὐτὴν εἰκόνα μεταμορφούμεθα ἀπὸ δόξης εἰς δόξαν καθάπερ ἀπὸ κυρίου πνεύματος. The word always is perhaps one of the most misused words in our English language. If we stop and think, we could find it being used out of context often. "I always, he/she always, we always this and that". I have been guilty of this far too often. We can be sure though that Jesus did not do this. He used words very carefully. He never wasted them. What in fact does this word mean in the following verse? I have read Matthew 28:20 many times and it has often been near to my soul.
Of course, I had only read it in English, and Spanish, and even there I was greatly impacted. Just the thought of the living Christ, the anointed chosen One of God, presently being with me is overwhelming. The verse reads as follows in two of our excellent English translations: And behold, I am with you always, to the end of the age (ESV) And lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age (NASB) That seems pretty clear. There is no special deep hidden truth to be gleaned when one turns to the original, but there are a few things worth noting that may make it a little clearer. First, here is the verse: καὶ ἰδοὺ ἐγὼ μεθ’ ὑμῶν εἰμι πάσας τὰς ἡμέρας ἕως τῆς συντελείας τοῦ αἰῶνος. |
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